An explanation of Psalm 150

Lots of people want to know why the churches of Christ do not use instrumental music in their worship. Before we discuss this psalm, I would like to say that we do not object to instrumental music to be peculiar. Neither do we do it because we necessarily dislike instrumental music. We have convictions based on the scriptures concerning acceptable worship. Matters of religion are not settled by appeals to prejudice, nor by taking a vote. Popularity has nothing to do with truth. The question is settled not by what we like or dislike, but rather by what God requires in worship.

A popular argument for the use of instrumental music goes like this: “God approved its use in the worship of the Jews under the Old Law, and therefore there is divine approval for its use today.” In reply to this, it is not a question of what God did approve under the Old Testament, but what does He now approve under the New Testament. Most of the books of the New Testament deal with the how New Testament took the place of the Old Testament.

Musical instruments are mentioned in the Old Testament about 75 times, many times in connection with singing and worship. But this does not authorize us to use such in our worship under the New Testament which is silent about the use of instrumental music in the worship services. The use of incense is mentioned about 50 times in the Old Testament, but it does not authorize us to use it in our worship services today.

Instrumental music, burning incense, and offering sacrifices are in the same class as far as New Testament worship is concerned. If we can go back to the Old Testament to use instrumental music, may we not also go back to the Old Testament for authority to burn incense and offer sacrifices in the worship assemblies?

Surely one can see the fallacy of going back to the Old Testament to just to “pick up” what we like. One group goes back to the Old Testament for their authority to burn incense in the worship, not finding authority under the New Testament. Another goes back for instrumental music in worship, but rejects the incense in worship. Another group goes back for the Sabbath observance, but rejects Passover, circumcision, animal sacrifices, etc.

In his psalms, David used instrumental music, but he also burned incense, offered animal sacrifices, circumcised his sons, kept the Sabbath, and ate the Passover — all of which would be wrong now under the New Testament. Why take David as an example for using instrumental music in worship and reject him as an example of authority for burning incense, etc.? Is that logically applying the principles of the Bible? Is that “rightly dividing the word of truth” (2 Timothy 2:15)?

Kyle Campbell